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Factorization Lemma





THEOREM

Let T:\Omega ightarrow\Omega' be a function of a set \Omega in a of the real numbers. If f only takes finite values, then g also only takes finite values.


PROOF

First, if f=g\circ T, then ''f'' is \sigma(T)-\mathcal{B}(\overline{\mathbb{R}}) measurable because it is the composition of a \sigma(T)-\mathcal{A}' and of a \mathcal{A}'-\mathcal{B}(\overline{\mathbb{R}}) measurable function. The proof of the converse falls into four parts: (1)''f'' is a Step Function , (2)''f'' is a positive function, (3) ''f'' is any scalar function, (4) ''f'' only takes finite values.


''f'' is a step function

  • , orall i\in {Link without Title} \!], A_i\in\sigma(T) and \alpha_i\in\mathbb{R}^+. As ''T'' is a measurable function, for all ''i'', there exists A_i'\in\mathcal{A}' such that A_i=T^{-1}(A_i'). g=\sum_{i=1}^n\alpha_i 1_{A_i'} fullfills the requirements.

  • ''f'' takes only positive values

If ''f'' takes only positive values, it is the limit of a sequence (u_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}} of step functions. For each of these, by (1), there exists g_n such that u_n=g_n\circ T. The function \lim_{n ightarrow+\infty}g_n fullfills the requirements.

General case

We can decompose ''f'' in a positive part f^+ and a negative part f^-. We can then find g_0^+ and g_0^- such that f^+=g_0^+\circ T and f^-=g_0^-\circ T. The problem is that the difference g:=g^+-g^- is not defined on the set U=\{x:g_0^+(x)=+\infty\}\cap\{x:g_0^-(x)=+\infty\}. Fortunately, T(\Omega)\cap U= arnothing because g_0^+(T(\omega))=f^-(\omega)=+\infty always implies g_0^-(T(\omega))=f^-(\omega)=0
We define g^+=1_{\Omega'\backslash U}g_0^+ and g^-=1_{\Omega'\backslash U}g_0^-. g=g^+-g^- fullfills the requirements.

''f'' takes finite values only