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0}^{n-1} f(t_i) (x_{i+1}-x_i) - s
ight < \epsilon\,</math>
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0}^{m-1} f(s_i) (y_{i+1}-y_i) - s
ight < \epsilon\,</math>
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To start, let
and
be a tagged partition (each
is between
and
). Choose
. The
have already been chosen, and we can't change the value of
at those points. But if we cut the partition into tiny pieces around each
, we can minimize the effect of the
. Then, by carefully choosing the new tags, we can make the value of the Riemann sum turn out to be within
of either zero or one—our choice!
Our first step is to cut up the partition. There are
of the
, and we want their total effect to be less than
. If we confine each of them to an interval of length less than
, then the contribution of each
to the Riemann sum will be at least
and at most
. This makes the total sum at least zero and at most
. So let
be a positive number less than
. If it happens that two of the
are within
of each other, choose
smaller. If it happens that some
is within
of some
, and
is not equal to
, choose
smaller. Since there are only finitely many
and
, we can always choose
sufficiently small.
Now we add two cuts to the partition for each
. One of the cuts will be at
, and the other will be at
. If one of these leaves the interval
. If
t_i is directly on top of one of the
x_j, then we let
t_i be the tag for both
- rac{\delta}{2},x_j and
+ rac{\delta}{2} . We still have to choose tags for the other subintervals. We will choose them in two different ways. The first way is to always choose a rational point, so that the Riemann sum is as large as possible. This will make the value of the Riemann sum at least
1-\epsilon. The second way is to always choose an irrational point, so that the Riemann sum is as small as possible. This will make the value of the Riemann sum at most
\epsilon.
Since we started from an arbitrary partition and ended up as close as we wanted to either zero or one, it is false to say that we are eventually trapped near some number
s, so this function is not Riemann integrable. However, it is
Lebesgue Integrable . In the Lebesgue sense its integral is zero, since the function is zero
Almost Everywhere . But this is a fact that is beyond the reach of the Riemann integral.
It is popular to define the Riemann integral as the
Darboux Integral . This is because the Darboux integral is technically simpler and because a function is Riemann-integrable if and only if it is Darboux-integrable.
Some calculus books do not use general tagged partitions, but limit themselves to specific types of tagged partitions. If the type of partition is limited too much, some non-integrable functions may appear to be integrable.
One popular restriction is the use of "left-hand" and "right-hand" Riemann sums. In a left-hand Riemann sum,
t_i = x_i for all
i, and in a right-hand Riemann sum,
t_i = x_{i+1} for all
i. Alone this restriction does not impose a problem: we can refine any partition in a way that makes it a left-hand or right-hand sum by subdividing it at each
t_i. In more formal language, the set of all left-hand Riemann sums and the set of all right-hand Riemann sums is
Cofinal in the set of all tagged partitions.
Another popular restriction is the use of regular subdivisions of an interval. For example, the
n'th regular subdivision of
1 consists of the intervals
[0, rac{1}{n}], [rac{1}{n}, rac{2}{n}], \ldots, [rac{n-1}{n}, 1]. Again, alone this restriction does not impose a problem, but the reasoning required to see this fact is more difficult than in the case of left-hand and right-hand Riemann sums.
However, combining these restrictions, so that one uses only left-hand or right-hand Riemann sums on regularly divided intervals, is dangerous. If a function is known in advance to be Riemann integrable, then this technique will give the correct value of the integral. But under these conditions the
Indicator Function I_{\mathbb{Q}} will appear to be integrable on
1 with integral equal to one: Every endpoint of every subinterval will be a rational number, so the function will always be evaluated at rational numbers, and hence it will appear to always equal one. The problem with this definition becomes apparent when we try to split the integral into two pieces. The following equation ought to hold:
:
\int_0^{\sqrt{2}-1}\! I_\mathbf{Q}(x) \,\mathrm{d}x +
\int_{\sqrt{2}-1}^1\! I_\mathbf{Q}(x) \,\mathrm{d}x =
\int_0^1\! I_\mathbf{Q}(x) \,\mathrm{d}x .
If we use regular subdivisions and left-hand or right-hand Riemann sums, then the two terms on the left are equal to zero, since every endpoint except 0 and 1 will be irrational, but as we have seen the term on the right will equal 1.
As defined above, the Riemann integral avoids this problem by refusing to integrate
I_{\mathbb{Q}}. The Lebesgue integral is defined in such a way that all these integrals are 0.
The Riemann integral is a linear transformation; that is, if
f and
g are Riemann-integrable on
{Link without Title} and
\alpha and
\beta are constants, then
:
\int_{a}^{b}( \alpha f + \beta g)\,dx = \alpha \int_{a}^{b}f(x)\,dx + \beta \int_{a}^{b}g(x)\,dx.
A real-valued function
f on
{Link without Title} is Riemann-integrable if and only if it is
Bounded and
Continuous Almost Everywhere .
If a real-valued function on
{Link without Title} is Riemann-integrable, it is
Lebesgue-integrable .
If
{f_n} is a
Uniformly Convergent sequence on
{Link without Title} with limit
f, then
:
\int_{a}^{b} f\, dx = \int_a^b{\lim_{n o \infty}{f_n}\, dx} = \lim_{n o \infty} \int_{a}^{b} f_n\, dx.
If a real-valued function is
Monotone on the interval
{Link without Title} , it is Riemann-integrable.
It is easy to extend the Riemann integral to functions with values in the Euclidean vector space
\mathbb{R}^n for any
n. The integral is defined by linearity; in other words, if
\mathbf{f} = (f_1, \dots, f_n), then
\int\mathbf{f} = (\int f_1,\,\dots, \int f_n). In particular, since the complex numbers are a real
Vector Space , this allows the integration of complex valued functions.
The Riemann integral is only defined on bounded intervals, and it does not extend well to unbounded intervals. The simplest possible extension is to define such an integral as a limit, in other words, as an
Improper Integral . We could set:
:
\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(t)\,dt = \lim_{x o\infty}\int_{-x}^x f(t)\,dt.
Unfortunately, this does not work well. Translation invariance, the fact that the Riemann integral of the function should not change if we move the function left or right, is lost. For example, let
f(x) = 1 for all
x > 0,
f(0)=0, and
f(x) = -1 for all
x < 0. Then,
:
\int_{-x}^x f(t)\,dt = \int_{-x}^0 f(t)\,dt + \int_0^x f(t)\,dt = -x + x = 0
for all
x. But if we shift
f(x) to the right by one unit to get
f(x-1), we get
:
\int_{-x}^x f(t-1)\,dt = \int_{-x}^1 f(t-1)\,dt + \int_1^x f(t-1)\,dt = -(x+1) + (x-1) = -2
for all
x > 1.
Since this is unacceptable, we could try the definition:
:
\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(t)\,dt = \lim_{a o-\infty}\lim_{b o\infty}\int_a^b f(t)\,dt.
Then if we attempt to integrate the function
f above, we get
+\infty, because we take the limit as
b tends to
\infty first. If we reverse the order of the limits, then we get
-\infty.
This is also unacceptable, so we could require that the integral exists and gives the same value regardless of the order. Even this does not give us what we want, because the Riemann integral no longer commutes with uniform limits. For example, let
f_n(x) = 1/n on
{Link without Title} and 0 everywhere else. For all
n,
\int f_n\,dx = 1. But
f_n converges uniformly to zero, so the integral of
\lim f_n is zero. Consequently
\int f\,dx
ot= \lim\int f_n\,dx. Even though this is the correct value, it shows that the most important criterion for exchanging limits and (proper) integrals is false for improper integrals. This makes the Riemann integral unworkable in applications.
A better route is to abandon the Riemann integral for the
Lebesgue Integral . The definition of the Lebesgue integral is not obviously a generalization of the Riemann integral, but it is not hard to prove that every Riemann-integrable function is Lebesgue-integrable and that the values of the two integrals agree whenever they are both defined.
An integral which is in fact a direct generalization of the Riemann integral is the
Henstock-Kurzweil Integral .
Another way of generalizing the Riemann integral is to replace the factors
x_i - x_{i+1} in the definition of a Riemann sum by something else; roughly speaking, this gives the interval of integration a different notion of length. This is the approach taken by the
Riemann-Stieltjes Integral .